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Mission Examination : सीबीएसई कक्षा 12वीं के छात्र ECONOMICS का माडल पेपर हल कर आंसर की से करें मिलान

By Parveen VashishtaEdited By:

Published: Thu, 11 Nov 2021 09:31 PM (GMT+05:30)

सीबीएसई बोर्ड परीक्षार्थियों के मार्गदर्शन के लिए दैनिक जागरण की ओर से माडल प्रश्नपत्र व प्रश्नपत्रों के उत्तर आनलाइन प्रकाशित ...और पढ़ें

सीबीएसई कक्षा 12वीं के छात्र ECONOMICS का माडल पेपर हल कर आंसर की से करें मिलान

SAMPLE PAPER CLASS XII (2021-22)

ECONOMICS (030) TIME ALLOWED: 90 minutes MAXIMUM MARKS: 40

General Instructions:-

1. There are a total 60 questions in this paper out of which 50

questions are to be attempted.

2. This paper is divided into three sections:

a. Section A – Contain 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

b. Section B – Contain 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

c. Section C – Contain 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.

3. All questions carry equal marks.

4. There is no negative marking.

SECTION A

(20 questions out of 24 questions are to be attempted)

1. Identify which of the following banks does not accept chequeable

deposits from public.

(a) SBI (b) Axis (c) LIC (d) ICICI

2. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – The government has strengthen the unified payment

interface (UPI) by NPCI, to secure digital payments as compared to

past.

Statement 2 – With this payment, system has been made more accessible

due to offline transactions, which makes it possible to use mobile

banking services without internet to promote financial inclusion and to

empower the poor and unbanked in the country.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

3. Mr. Parag Gupta, an economics teacher, was explaining the concept of

‘centralisation of foreign exchange transaction with RBI helps in

stabilizing the external value of currency’.

From the following, choose the correct alternative which specifies the

correct function of RBI explained by him?

(a) Currency authority (b) Custodian of Foreign exchange reserves

4. Two friends Om and Aryan were discussing the exchange rate market.

‘Under this market, a two days margin is allowed as it takes two days

for payments made through cheques to be cleared’.

The above mentioned statement was given by Om, identify the type of

exchange rate market was he talking about?

(a) Spot forward (hybrid) market (b) Forward market

5. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – Non-tax revenue receipts includes gifts which are

generally received during national crisis such as war, flood etc.

Statement 2 – Gifts are a fixed sources of non-tax revenue of the

government.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

6. Under five years plan, human capital assigned a key role in

the country’s development strategy.

(a) First (b) Seventh (c) Fourth (d) Sixth

7. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – From 1973-74 to 2011-12, there has been a considerable

rise in the number of poor and their proportion.

Statement 2 – In 1973-74 more than 80% of the poor resided in urban

areas, and this situation has not changed even in 2011-12.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

8. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – With the launch of Make in India initiative in September

2014, FDI policy was further liberalized.

Statement 2 – The foreign investment (FDI and FII) increased from about

US $100 million in 1990-91 to US

$73.5 billion in 2014-15.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

9. Due to Green revolution prices of food grains declined relative to

other items of consumption which benefit to .

(a) The richer section (b) High income groups

10. From the following given sets of statements in Column I and II,

choose the correct pair of statements.

Column I

Column II

A. Balance of trade

i. Includes visible items as well as invisible items

B. Current account

ii. Net income generated to the foreign sector

C. Unilateral transfers

iii. Requited transfers to and from abroad

D. Foreign Direct Investments

iv. Foreign Institutional Investment

Alternatives:

(a) A-i (b) B-ii (c) C-iii (d) D-iv

11. Self help groups has emerged as programme to promote thrift in

small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member.

(a) Major finance (b) Marginal finance

12. The Government of India spent Rs. 4.85 crore on Neeraj Chopra for

his training. This will be categorized as

(a) revenue nature income (b) capital nature income

13. is one of the characteristics of people living in poverty.

(a) Political inclusion (b) Affluent lifestyle

14. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – Till 1990, there was witnessing disguised unemployment in

the agriculture sector because industrial and service sector were

unable to absorb the extra.

Statement 2 – As a result, the new economic policy 1991 has promoted

the agricultural sector compared to industry, trade and service sector.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

15. is one of the correct demographic condition of Indians during

the colonial rule.

(a) Adequate health facilities (b) High birth and death rate

16. The government can achieve its budget objective of ‘reducing

regional disparities’ by .

(a) Increasing monopolic control

(b) Reducing debt trap

(d) Providing subsidies for setting up industries in backward areas.

17. Balance of Payments does not include economic transactions between

and rest of the world, in a given period of time.

(a) Diplomatic staff of foreign country in India (b) Branches of

foreign company in India

18. The RBI is empowered to in the economy through its monetary

policy?

(a) Maintain reserves (b) Regulate the money supply

19. Identify which of the following is not an example of capital

account transaction.

(a) Payment due as interest on loans

(b) Indian party making investment in equity shares

(d) Repayment of loans

20. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – Monthly per capita expenditure considers social factor

that generate and are responsible of poverty.

Statement 2 – ‘Monthly per capital income expenditure’ method groups

all the poor together and does not differentiate between the poor and

other poor.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

21. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – India has a fair international worthiness and credibility

which makes it a favourable outsourcing destination.

Statement 2 – MNCs get various types of lucrative offers from the

Indian government like tax holidays, low tax rates, etc.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

22. ‘During British rule death rate was very high in India’. Identify

which of the following may not be the reason for high death rate.

(a) No clean and safe drinking water (b) Extremely low literacy rate

facilities.

23. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): Acquisition of INTEL CORPORATION by TATA will be

recorded on the debit side of BOP account.

Reason(R): It leads to outflow of foreign exchange from the

domestic country.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

24. Mr. Ramesh, Director of Om Higher Education Institute, providing

higher education in India at reasonable fees, it has 600 branches

across all over India which is great step towards increasing literacy

rate of higher education. It exhibits the right step in the direction

of human capital formation.

Spot which of the following does not directly contributes to the

process of human capital formation by Mr. Ramesh:

(a) The fullest possible development of human capabilities

(b) Ability to think and pursue dreams in life

(d) Overcome of social prejudices

SECTION B

(20 questions out of 24 questions are to be attempted)

25. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): The ‘Land reform’ measures and Green revolution were the

greatest achievements of the Indian government in enhancing the

agricultural production and productivity.

Reason(R): The proportion of GDP between 1950-90 contributed by

agriculture declined significantly.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(R) is true.

26. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): Human development considers education and health as a

means to increase labour productivity.

Reason(R): According to human development perspective, every

individual has a right to be literate and lead a healthy life.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(R) is true.

27. From the set of statements given in Column I and Column II, choose

the correct pair of statement:

Column I (Name of the Scheme)

Column II

(Objective of Poverty Alleviation Program)

A. National Food for Work Programme

i. Aims at creating self employment opportunities for rural people

B. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana

ii. Provide free health facilities to poorest to fight covid battle

C. Pradhan Mantri Jan-dhan Yojana

iii. Aims to expand affordable access to financial services such as

bank a/c remittances, credit insurance and pension

D. Indira Awaas Yojana (rural housing)

iv. Housing program operated with the aim of providing facilitating

houses to homeless poor during the covid crisis.

Alternatives:

(a) A-i (b) B-ii (c) C-iii (d) D-iv

28. Suppose in an economy, the initial deposits of Rs. 2,000 crores

lead to the creation of total deposits worth Rs. 10,000 crores.

Under the given situation the value of reserve requirements would be

(a) 0.5 (b) 0.21 (c) 0.20 (d) 1/0.2

29.

The term post-pandemic refers to the period since the onset of the

pandemic in January 2020.

The chart shows the estimated number of people in each income tier in

2020 before and after the Covid 19 induced global recession.

Figure showing estimated number of poor in each income tier, before and

after Covid-19.

On the basis of the given bar diagram, the number of poor in India is

estimated to have and low income people is estimated to have

due to Covid-19 induced recession.

(a) increased, increased (b) increased, decreased

30. Educational levels in India, 1991

On the basis of the above mentioned information answer the following

question:

The Indian education pyramid is steep indicating reaching higher

education.

(a) Comparatively high (b) Almost all

31. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): The idea behind abolition of intermediaries was that

ownership of land would give incentives to the actual tillers to make

improvements.

Reason(R): Land reforms were successful in Kerala and West Bengal

because government of these states were committed to the policy of

land reforms.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

32. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – NABARD facilitates rural prosperity by refinancing and

promoting institutional development.

Statement 2 – NABARD is intended to create income generating assets in

agriculture and allied activities.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

33. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – Money creation by commercial bank raises the national

income.

Statement 2 – Higher the value of LRR, higher the value of money

multiplier and more the money is created by the banking system

resulting in the subsequent rise in the national income.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

34. Arrange the following event in the correct chronological order:

i. Opening of Suez canal

ii. First Official Census

iii. Introduction of railway in India

iv. Foundation of British empire (Battle of Plassey)

Alternatives:

(a) iv, ii, i, iii (b) I, iv, iii, ii (c) ii, iii, iv, i

(d) iv, iii, I, ii

35. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): Unfavorable balance of trade can be met out of favorable

balance of payments.

Reason(R): Autonomous transactions are compensating capital

transactions which are meant to correct disequilibrium in all item of

balance of payments.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

36. Demand deposits of commercial banks include only and

excluded.

i. Saving account deposits ii. Net demand deposits

iii. Inter-bank deposits iv. Cash reserves with banks

Alternatives:

(a) i and ii (b) ii and iii (c) i and iii (d) i and iv

37. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): After the economic reforms of 1991, the growth rate of

agriculture sector decelerated to 3%

p.a. during 1991-2012.

Reason(R): The new economic policy has neglected the agricultural

sector as compared to industry, trade and service sector.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

38. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): Consumers and business park much of their funds in

demand deposits in order to pay for their ongoing, daily expenses.

Reason(R): Demand deposits are advantageous due to their liquidity

ease of access.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

39. Choose the correct alternatives relating to the adverse living

standards of Indian during British rule to be filled in given blank B

and D.

(a) High illiteracy, indebtness

(b) Fragmentation of landholding, indebtness and poverty

(d) High subsidies, distress among farmers

40. Suppose that the Balance of Trade (BOT) of a nation, exhibits a

deficit of Rs. 50,000 crores. The import of visible items are five time

of the exports of visible items to the rest of the world.

The value of exports would be Rs. crores.

(a) 20,000 (b) 10,000 (c) 12,500 (d) 20,300

41. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) Colonial government enforced discriminatory tariff policy, which

allowed free export of raw materials from India and free import of

final goods of British industry to India.

(b) Indian agricultural sector did not suffer due to partition.

and capitalist system in the Indian economy.

(d) At the time of independence, Indian economy was a ‘depleted

economy’ and ‘amputed economy’.

42. Match the situations given in Column I with their respective

implications given in Column II:

Column I

Column II

A. Massive illiteracy

i. Serious inefficiency

B. Physical capital

ii. Create private benefit

C. Health expenditure

iii. Productive labour force

D. Human developmentive

iv. Human welfare is the main objective

Alternatives:

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (b) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

43. When there is a depreciation of foreign currency, the supply of

foreign currency in domestic economy will: (a)Increase (b) Not change

44. If an economy is to control recession, which of the following can

be appropriate?

(a) Reducing Repo Rate (b) Reducing CRR

45. Most of the studies disclosed that India’s growth of aggregate real

output during the first half of the twentieth century was less than

(a) 0.5% (b) 5% (c) 2% (d) 1.5%

46. Arguments against subsidies:

(a) A huge burden on the government’s finances

(b) It does not benefit the target group

(d) All of the above

47. By March end 2003, more than SHGs had reportedly been credit

linked.

(a) one lakh (b) two lakhs (c) five lakhs (d) seven lakhs

48. essentially focuses on action for the development of areas that

are lagging behind in the overall development of the village economy.

(a) Economic growth (b) Economic development

SECTION C

(10 questions out of 12 questions are to be attempted) Q.No. 49-54 are

to be answered on the basis of the following data:

49. The value of recovery of loans has crores between 2017-18

(Actuals) and 2018-19 (Budgeted estimate).

(a) Fallen by Rs. 4343 (b) Risen by Rs. 3434

50. The percentage change in the Non-Tax Revenue, between 2017-18

(Actual) and 2018-19 (Budgetary Estimate), taking the 2017-18 as base,

would be .

(a) 27.89% (b) 271.5% (c) 24.64% (d) 27.15%

51. Identify which of the following is not an example of non-tax

revenue:

(a) Fees (b) Customs (c) Escheat (d) Special tax

52. Identify the correct formula of total borrowings:

(a) Revenue deficit + (Capital expenditure – Non-dept creating

receipts)

(b) Primary deficit – Interest payments

(d) Total expenditure – Revenue Receipt

53. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – Fiscal deficit of 2017-18 is more than 2018-19’s annual

fiscal deficit.

Statement 2 – Revenue deficit of 2017-18 tends to be higher than 2018-

19’s annual revenue deficit.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

54. The value of Primary deficit for the year 2017-18, would be Rs.

crores.

(a) 62112 (b) 626112.4 (c) 48481 (d) 609219

Q. No. 55-60 are to be answered on the basis of the following data:

The economic liberalization process in 1991 was triggered by an

economic crisis (when government finances were strained, BOP crisis)

that confronted our nation then, but it was not limited to crisis

management. The edifice of India’s economic reforms was build on the

desire to prosper, the belief in our capabilities, and the confidence

to relinquish control of the economy by the government. The measures

included devaluating the rupee, a new industrial policy which sharply

reduced bureaucratic control, raising FDI limits in a number of

sectors, cutting red tape and paving the way for privatization of

state-owned entities, to ensure ameliorate performance of PSUs. The

thrust of the NEP has been towards creating a more competitive

environment by encouraging foreign investment too through trade and

investment policy reforms in the economy as a means to improve the

productivity and efficiency of the system. This was to be achieved by

removing the barriers to entry and the restrictions on the growth of

firms.

Liberalisation

Liberalisation refers to the slackening of government regulations. The

economic liberalization in India denotes the continuing financial

reforms which began since July 24, 1991.

Privatisation and Globalisation

Privatisation refers to the participation of private entities in

businesses and services and transfer of ownership from the public

sector (or government) to the private sector as well.

Globalisation stands for the consolidation of the various economies of

the world.

55. Liberalisation involves and greater autonomy of private

investment.

(a) Greater control of government (b) Regulating reform

reforms

56. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – Liberalisation was introduced to induce more competition

into the economy.

Statement 2 – Under Liberalisation multinational corporation were also

engaged to invest and expand in India.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false

57. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): The new economic reforms include cutting red tapism

paving the way for privatization of state owned entities.

Reason(R): Privatisation will improve financial discipline and

facilitates modernisation will improve the performance of PSUs.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

58. In the light of the given text and common knowledge, identify the

incorrect statement:

(a) Under industrial sector reforms public sector’s role was

substantially reduced and MRTP act was introduced.

(b) Liberalisation involves transcending economic, social and

geographical boundaries.

in the economy and remove the barriers to entry and growth of firms.

(d) Rupee was devalued against foreign currencies to increase the

inflow of foreign exchange.

59. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct

alternative from the following:

Statement 1 – Reduction in bureaucratic control will provide ease in

privatization.

Statement 2 – The practical reason for privatization is that the

government finances are strained and it looks to augment its resources

by government assets.

Alternatives:

(a) Both the statements are true.

(b) Both the statements are false.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false

60. Read the following statements and choose the correct one from the

given alternatives:

Assertion (A): The NEP involves drastic steps such as

deindustrialization, changes to foreign exchange rate, PSU

privatization, delicensing and so on.

Reason(R): LPG were introduced to create conducive climate for

public sector to usher growth.

Alternatives:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

(A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

(A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

MANISH SHARMA

MIET PUBLIC SCHOOL

MEERUT

पेपर टिप्स: वेटेज के अनुसार टापिकवार करें इकोनोमिक्स की तैयारी

मेरठ, जागरण संवाददाता। सीबीएसई की टर्म-वन परीक्षा में इकोनोमिक्स की परीक्षा बुधवार 15 दिसंबर को होगी। इस पेपर की तैयारी के लिए परीक्षार्थियों के पास अभी एक महीने से अधिक का समय शेष है। इकोनोमिक्स का पेपर थ्योरी जरूर होता है लेकिन पहले भी शिक्षक छात्रों को सभी बिंदुओं को समझकर पढऩे की सलाह देते रहे हैं। टर्म-वन परीक्षा एमसीक्यू यानी बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्नों पर आधारित है तो समझकर पढ़ाई करना और भी महत्वपूर्ण हो गया है। छात्रों के मार्गदर्शन के लिए जरूरी सुझाव दे रहे हैं वरिष्ठ इकोनोमिक्स शिक्षक एवं एमआइईटी पब्लिक स्कूल के सीनियर कोआर्डिनेटर मनीष शर्मा।

पढ़ें और हल पेपर करें

वेटेज के अनुरूप चैप्टरवार और टापिकवार तैयारी करें। अधिक वेटेज वाले टापिक ठीक से तैयार होने पर परीक्षा में अच्छे अंक स्कोर करने में आसानी होगी। परीक्षा सामने है इसलिए सिलेबस समय से पूरा कर रिवीजन करें। अंतिम समय के लिए कुछ न छोड़ें। सीबीएसई की ओर से जारी माडल पेपर को बोर्ड परीक्षा की तरह 90 मिनट में हल करने की कोशिश करें। परीक्षा में प्रश्नपत्र हल करने और उत्तर देने की सटीकता का अभ्यास करें। इससे आप अपनी कमजोरियों को पहचान कर दूर कर सकेंगे।

माडल पेपर हल करने से बढ़ेगा आत्मविश्वास

सभी परीक्षार्थियों के लिए सिलेबस पूरा कर रिवीजन करते रहना ही काफी नहीं है। रिवीजन के साथ ही माडल पेपर को हल करने का अभ्यास करते रहें। इससे आत्मविश्वास बढ़ेगा। शेड्यूल तैयार कर पढ़ाई करें जिससे आपको परीक्षा के बदले पैटर्न में स्वयं को ढालने में मदद मिलेगी। इससे परीक्षा में कुछ नया सा नहीं लगेगा और कम समय में अधिक प्रश्नों के उत्तर दे सकेंगे।

पेपर के बदले पैटर्न को भी समझें

इकोनोमिक्स का पेपर भी 90 मिनट का ही होगा। पेपर 40 अंक का होगा। पेपर में 60 प्रश्न पूछे जाएंगे जिसमें से परीक्षार्थियों को 50 प्रश्न हल करने होंगे। पेपर तीन सेक्शन में है। सेक्शन ए एवं बी में 24-24 प्रश्न होंगे जिनमें से 20-20 प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं। सेक्शन-सी में 12 प्रश्न होंगे जिनमें 10 प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने होंगे।

सीबीएसई के कक्षा 12 के इकोनोमिक्‍स के ऊपर दिए माडल पेपर की उत्तर कुंजी यानि आंसर की नीचे दी गई है।